Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 01.07.2025 16:22
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
There's no rule.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
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Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
You'll usually find your answer there.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Do you think Andrew Tate and Nigel Farage are part of a "similar phenomenon"?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Why did Kakashi use Chidori against Rin, despite knowing about her feelings for Obito?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?